RN NCLEX Set 4 - Free Nurse Test Bank

Feeling nervous about taking the NCLEX? Gauge how well prepared you are with this free nurse test bank of 10 questions. At the end of this short test, you will see answers and rationales.

Question 1

A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) will be taught about substances to stay away from by the nurse. Which things ought to be on this list, according to the nurse? Select all that apply.

A. Coffee

B. Chocolate

C. Peppermint

D. Nonfat milk

E. Fried chicken

F. Scrambled eggs

Question 2

The primary care physician has concluded that a patient's flu-like symptoms and jaundice are indicative of hepatitis A. Which of the client's statements is consistent with this medical diagnosis?

A. "I have had unprotected sex with multiple partners."

B. "I ate shellfish about 2 weeks ago at a local restaurant."

C. "I was an intravenous drug abuser in the past and shared needles."

D. "I had a blood transfusion 30 years ago after major abdominal surgery."

Question 3

The patient under the nurse's care has been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. Which examination result would most likely point to an ulcer's perforation?

A. Bradycardia

B. Numbness in the legs

C. Nausea and vomiting

D. A rigid, board-like abdomen

Question 4

A client who had a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II operation) is being cared for by the nurse. Which postoperative prescription needs to be checked and questioned by the nurse?

A. Leg exercises

B. Early ambulation

C. Irrigating the nasogastric tube

D. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises

Question 5

When a nurse gives a patient discharge instructions after a gastric bypass, she should advise the patient to perform this action to help prevent dumping syndrome?

A. Ambulate following a meal.

B. Eat high-carbohydrate foods.

C. Limit the fluids taken with meals.

D. Sit in a high-fowler's position during meals.

Question 6

Histoplasmosis is seen in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which expected finding should the nurse evaluate the patient for?

A. Dyspnea

B. Headache

C. Weight gain

D. Hypothermia

Question 7

An admission assessment is being performed by the nurse on a patient who has a history of duodenal ulcer. To identify whether the condition is now active, the nurse should check the client for which indication of duodenal ulcer?

A. Weight loss

B. Nausea and vomiting

C. Pain relieved by food intake

D. Pain radiating down the right arm

Question 8

A patient receiving treatment from the nurse recently underwent a transverse colostomy. Which observation calls for the primary healthcare physician to be notified right away?

A. Stoma is beefy red and shiny

B. Purple discoloration of the stoma

C. Skin excoriation around the stoma

D. Semi formed stool noted in the ostomy pouch

Question 9

A client receives directions from the nurse regarding how to manage inflammatory bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the client's statements suggests that more instruction is necessary?

A. "I need to limit my intake of dietary fiber."

B. "I need to drink plenty, at least 8 to 10 cups daily."

C. "I need to eat regular meals and chew my food well."

D. "I will take the prescribed medications because they will regulate my bowel patterns."

Question 10

The nurse is keeping an eye out for the early indications of dumping syndrome in a client. Which results point to this happening?

A. Sweating and pallor

B. Bradycardia and indigestion

C. Double vision and chest pain

D. Abdominal cramping and pain

Answer Key

Question 1 Answers - A, B, C, E

Rationale: Foods that irritate the esophagus and lower the pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) should be avoided since they cause reflux and worsen the symptoms of GERD. Coffee, chocolate, peppermint, fried or fatty foods, fizzy drinks, and alcohol are examples of aggravating substances. This effect is not supported by options 4 and 6.

Question 2 Answer - B

Rationale: The fecal-oral route of hepatitis A transmission involves contaminated water or food (such as inadequately cooked shellfish) or diseased food handlers. Most cases of hepatitis B, C, and D are spread through contaminated blood or bodily fluids, such as those resulting from intravenous drug misuse, previous blood transfusions, or unprotected multiple partner intercourse.

Question 3 Answer - D

Rationale: A surgical emergency, an ulcer perforation is characterized by abrupt, intense, unbearable pain that starts in the midepigastric region and spreads across the belly, becoming rigid and board-like. There may be vomiting and nausea. During the onset of hypovolemic shock, tachycardia may happen. Leg numbness is not a correlated finding.

Question 4 Answer - C

Rationale: The proximal remnant of the stomach is anastomosed to the proximal jejunum during a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II surgery). In order to avoid stomach secretions being retained, the nasogastric tube must remain open. After gastric surgery, the nurse should never adjust the gastric tube

or irrigate it unless the primary healthcare professional specifically instructs them to do so. The nurse in this case ought to make the prescription clear. Postoperative interventions that are appropriate include options 1, 2, and 4.

Question 5 Answer - C

Rationale: The phrase "dumping syndrome" describes a group of vasomotor symptoms that appear after eating, particularly after a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II operation). Early symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the want to lie down; they often appear 30 minutes after eating. The client should be advised by the nurse to reduce the amount of fluid consumed during meals, avoid high-carbohydrate foods and beverages, adopt a low-Fowler's position during meals, lie down for 30 minutes after eating to postpone gastric emptying, and take antispasmodics as directed.

Question 6 Answer - A

Rationale: An opportunistic fungal illness called histoplasmosis can strike an AIDS patient. The infection can spread to other parts of the body after starting as a respiratory infection. Fever, dyspnea, coughing, and weight loss are typical warning signs and symptoms. Additionally, the client's liver, spleen, and lymph nodes may enlarge.

Question 7 Answer - C

Rationale: A common sign of a duodenal ulcer is pain that is lessened while eating. These patients typically characterize the pain as intense, severe, burning, or "hungry," with frequent localization in the midepigastric region. Typically, a client with a duodenal ulcer does not lose weight or experience nausea or vomiting. These signs are more common in patients who have stomach ulcers.

Question 8 Answer - B

Rationale: A dark, bluish, or purple tint might be linked to ischemia of the stoma. A glossy, meaty red stoma is expected and usual. While skin excoriation should be examined and treated, it does not need to be attended to as quickly as purple stoma discolouration. A semiformed stool is a typical discovery.

Question 9 Answer - A

Rationale: IBS is a functional gastrointestinal illness that can result in constipation, diarrhea that is persistent or recurrent, bloating, and/or stomach pain. Dietary fiber and bulk assist produce bulky, soft stools and establish regular bowel evacuation patterns. The client should so follow a high-fiber diet. Normal bowel function can be supported by eating regular meals, drinking eight to ten cups of fluids each day, and chewing food slowly. The primary IBS symptoms determine the course of medication therapy. It may be prescribed to take bulk-forming laxatives, antidiarrheal medications, or other medications.

Question 10 Answer - A

Rationale: Dumping syndrome's initial symptoms appear five to thirty minutes after eating. Vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and a want to lie down are some of the symptoms.

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