Test your knowledge with these 10 nursing questions. Check out more free nurse test bank here. Answers are provided at the end with rationales.
Question 1
A client with diabetes mellitus has an A1C level of 8% for glycosylated hemoglobin. Which measure is the nurse planning to teach the client about in light of this test result?
A. Avoiding infection
B. Taking in adequate fluids
C. Preventing and recognizing hypoglycemia
D. Preventing and recognizing hyperglycemia
Question 2
A client is being taught how to conduct a testicular self-examination (TSE) by the nurse. When is the optimum time to conduct this exam, the nurse should clarify?
A. After a shower or bath
B. While standing to void
C. After having a bowel movement
D. While lying in bed before arising
Question 3
The clinic nurse gets ready to give a client who is complaining of lung congestion, a cough, and cold symptoms a focused assessment. Which ones ought to be included in this kind of assessment by the nurse? Select all that apply.
A. Auscultating lung sounds
B. Obtaining the client's temperature
C. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses
D. Obtaining information about the client's respirations
E. Performing a musculoskeletal and neurological examination
F. Asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease
Question 4
The pediatric nursing staff is being briefed on Piaget's cognitive developmental theory by the nurse. Which child conduct is typical of the formal operations stage, the nurse should inform the staff?
A. The child has the ability to think abstractly.
B. The child begins to understand the environment.
C. The child is able to classify, order, and sort facts.
D. The child learns to think in terms of past, present, and future.
Question 5
A 3-year-old's parent informs a clinic nurse that their child is often acting up and throwing temper tantrums. Which suggestions should the nurse provide the parent based on Erikson's psychosocial development theory?
Select all that apply.
A. Set limits on the child's behavior.
B. Ignore the child when this behavior occurs.
C. Allow the behavior, because this is normal at this age period.
D. Provide a simple explanation of why the behavior is unacceptable.
E. Punish the child every time the child says "no" to change the behavior.
Question 6
Due to acute appendicitis, a 16-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital. They do an appendectomy. Which nursing intervention is best suited to support recovery from surgery by promoting normal growth and development?
A. Encourage the client to rest and read.
B. Encourage the parents to room in with the client.
C. Allow the family to bring in the client's favorite computer games.
D. Allow the client to interact with others in his or her same age group.
Question 7
A client with a lactose intolerance issue is being evaluated by the nurse for a possible diagnosis of hypocalcemia. What kind of clinical manipulation would the nurse anticipate seeing in the patient?
A. Twitching
B. Hypoactive bowel sounds
C. Negative Trousseau's sign
D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes
Question 8
A client with chronic renal disease has an electrolyte result review, and the nurse observes that the potassium level is 5.7 mEq/L (5.7 mmol/L). Given the laboratory value, what patterns would the nurse look out for on the heart monitor?
Select all that apply.
A. ST depression
B. Prominent U wave
C. Tall peaked T waves
D. Prolonged ST segment
E. Widened QRS complexes
Question 9
The prothrombin time (PT) of a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin sodium maintenance treatment is 35 seconds. Which prescription does the nurse predict based on these lab values?
A. Adding a dose of heparin sodium
B. Holding the next dose of warfarin
C. Increasing the next dose of warfarin
D. Administering the next dose of warfarin
Question 10
Furosemide should be administered in the morning to a patient who has a history of heart failure. Which serum potassium level, if present in the laboratory report for the client, needs to be disclosed prior to giving the furosemide dose?
A. 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L)
B. 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L)
C. 4.2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L)
D. 4.8 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L)
Answer Key
Question 1 Answer - D
Rationale: Less than 6.0% is the typical reference range for glycosylated hemoglobin A1C. This test calculates the quantity of circulating glucose that has adhered permanently to red blood cells. Erythrocytes provide feedback on blood glucose levels during the last 120 days over their roughly 120-day lifespan. Glycosylation levels will rise in response to increases in blood glucose. As a result, the test helps identify patients who have episodes of hyperglycemia but are not aware of them due to other factors. A glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8% is expected to have an average glucose of 205 mg/dL (11.42 mmol/L). Elevations suggest that education about preventing hyperglycemic episodes is still necessary.
Question 2 Answer - A
Rationale: The client must be taught how to complete a TSE by the nurse.The client should be given instructions by the nurse to conduct the exam on the same day every month. The client should be informed by the nurse that the ideal time to perform a TSE is right after taking a bath or shower, when the scrotum is warm and the hands are soapy and warm. It is simpler to palpate, and the client will be more adept at seeing any abnormalities. The exam would be performed by the client standing, although it would be challenging to complete the exam while voiding. Having a bowel movement has nothing to do with completing a TSE.
Question 3 Answers - A, B, D
Rationale: A focused assessment focuses on a limited or short-term problem, such as the client's complaint. Because the client is complaining of symptoms of a cold, a cough, and lung congestion, the nurse would focus on the respiratory system and the presence of an infection. A complete assessment includes a complete health history and physical examination and forms a baseline database. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses relates to a vascular assessment, which is not related to
this client's complaints. A musculoskeletal and neurological examination also is not related to this client's complaints. However, strength of peripheral pulses and a musculoskeletal and neurological examination would be included in a complete assessment. Likewise, asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease would be included in a complete assessment.
Question 4 Answer - A
Rationale:The child can reason logically and abstractly at the formal operations stage. Option 2 indicates which stage is sensorimotor. Option 3 indicates the stage of concrete operations. The preoperational stage is identified in Option 4.
Question 5 Answers - A, D
Rationale: According to Erikson, the child focuses on gaining some basic control over self and the environment and independence between ages 1 and 3 years. Gaining independence often means that the child has to rebel against the parents' wishes. Saying things like "no" or "mine" and having temper tantrums are common during this period of development. Being consistent and setting limits on the child's behavior are necessary elements. Providing a sim- ple explanation of why certain behaviors are unacceptable is an appropriate action. Options 2 and 3 do not address the child's behavior. Option 5 is likely to produce a negative response during this normal developmental pattern.
Question 6 Answer - D
Rationale: Adolescents frequently do not know if they want their parents to stay with them in the hospital. The significance of their social group makes being apart from pals a cause of concern. The peer group members should ideally assist their sick friend. The customer is isolated from the peer group by options 1, 2, and 3.
Question 7 Answer -A
Rationale: A client with lactose intolerance is at risk for developing hypocalcemia, because food products that contain calcium also contain lactose. The normal serum calcium level is 9 to 10.5 mg/dL (2.25 to 2.75 mmol/L). A serum calcium level lower than 9 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) indicates hypocalcemia. Signs of hypocalcemia include paresthesias followed by numbness, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, and a positive Trousseau's or Chvostek's sign. Additional signs of hypocalcemia include increased neuromuscular excitability, muscle cramps, twitching, tetany, seizures, irritability, and anxiety. Gastrointestinal symptoms include increased gastric motility, hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea.
Question 8 Answers - C, E
Rationale: The patient who suffers from chronic renal disease may become hyperkalemic. 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L, or 3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L, is the typical potassium level. Hyperkalemia is defined as a blood potassium level higher than 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L). Tall peaked T waves, enlarged QRS complexes, flat P waves, and extended PR intervals are electrocardiographic abnormalities linked to hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia causes an obvious U-wave and ST depression. In hypocalcemia, the ST segment gets extended.
Question 9 Answer - B
Rationale: The normal PT is 11 to 12.5 seconds (conventional therapy and SI units). A therapeutic PT level is 1.5 to 2 times higher than the normal level. Because the value of 35 seconds is high, the nurse should anticipate that the client would not receive further doses at this time. Therefore, the prescriptions noted in the remaining options are incorrect.
Question 10 Answer - A
Rationale: Adults typically have serum potassium levels between 3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 and 5.0 mmol/L). The only value that is below the therapeutic range is the right answer. Ventricular dysrhythmias may occur if furosemide is given to a patient who has a history of cardiac issues and low potassium levels. The remaining choices fall into the typical range.
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